FAQ

The book answers questions about the correct meaning of certain Qur’anic verses that have been misinterpreted during the last fourteen centuries by Muslims commentators.

What is the Aramaic language?
A Semitic language, closely related to Hebrew. Portions of the Old Testament are written in one of its dialects, called Biblical Aramaic. It is the language of the Talmud.

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How did the Arabic alphabet develop?

The Arabic alphabet is written from right to left. It is composed of twenty-eight consonantal phonemes. The language has six vowels, three short and three long. The Arabic alphabet developed out of a form of the Aramaic alphabet, which had twenty-two letters. Arabic writers were faced with a dilemma of having to write their language with twenty-two consonants. They had to write without the dots on top or under the letters. The earliest Arabic papyrus so far discovered, which is dated Jumada 1, 22 (April 643) contains few pointed letters. The point system developed later. Early manuscripts of the Qur’an did not have diacritics, or vowel signs /a/aa/i/ii/u/uu/ (asma’u al isharat)…For more on this, please refer to my book, chapter one, pages 72-79.

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Is the script of modern Qur’an original?

No.
The discovery of the Qur’anic manuscripts in Yemen in 1972, better known as the “San’a Manuscripts”, is the most important development in the study of the history of the Qur’an. Those manuscripts represent the earliest form of the Qur’anic script, which is different from the script used in modern Qur’an. The script of the Sana’a documents, lack the vowel signs and the diacrtiticals necessary to render accurate vocalization. The process of copying modern Qur’an from the older script resulted in numerous errors. as we shall see.For more on this topic, please refer to my book. The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization “UNESCO” published some of the Manuscripts,the Sana’a Manuscripts.

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Are there fair maiden virgin women in heaven?

The Qur’an states the following: WAZAWWAJNAHUM BIHURI ‘INEN, Q. 44: 55. Muslim commentators render the following interpretations: 1-‘We shall consort them with fair maidens, having wide, beautiful eyes’ (M. Sher Ali); 2-’so; and we shall join them to Companions with beautiful big, and lustrous eyes’ (A. Yusuf Ali); 3-‘Even so, it will be, and we shall wed them unto fair ones with wide, lovely eyes’ (M. M. Pickthall). Abdullah Yusuf Ali writes the following commentary: ‘the companions, like the scene, the dress, the outlook, and the fruit, will be beautiful. These symbolic words need not to be taken to mean that there will be eating and drinking, or dressing, or marriage, or any physical things of that kind. There will be life, but free from all earthly grossness. The women as well as the men of this life will attain to this indescribable bliss: ix. 72, and objects of beauty, grace, and satisfaction, described symbolically, must apply to both’. Verse 44: 55 contains the following words: Wazawajnahum, translated erroneously as ‘we shall consort them with fair maidens, shall join them to Companions, and we shall wed them unto fair ones’. Aram. “zug” meaning ‘bright skin of grape’ (Num. 6: 4), Syr. “zugo” the skin of the white grapes, i.e. raisins (Arab. zbib), Aram. letter /g/ is pronounced /j/ in Arabic. Bihur, translated erroneously as ‘wide, big, and lovely’. Aram. “hur” to grow white (Isa. 29: 22), Syr. “heworo” white; ‘inen, translated erroneously as ‘beautiful eyes, lustrous eyes, and lovely eyes’. Aram. “ ‘un” meaning ‘dwelling in heaven, spring of water’ (Deut. 26: 15). Muslim commentators have done disservice to their communities around the world, for giving them erroneous interpretations to this Qur’anic verse. Based on these false interpretations, numerous Muslims were killed on the wrong belief, that they will have women waiting for them in heaven. The Arabic text of the Qur’an places the event in the ‘past’; the commentators reversed that, and placed the events in the ‘future’ (shall, we shall, and it will). The Qur’anic word “hur” means ‘white’; it has been associated erroneously with ‘women’. There is no mention to women in this verse. Syr. “heworo”…For more on this verse, please refer to my book, pages 400-402.

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Does the Qur’an command women to cover their faces?

According to the Aramaic interpretation of the Qur’an, there is absolutely no obligation on women to cover their faces…For more on this, please refer to my book, pages 354-364.

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Are women allowed to show their beauty?

Wala yubdina zinatuhunna, Q. 24: 32. Translated ‘and that they disclose not their natural and artificial beauty except that which is apparent thereof’ (M. Sher Ali). There is absolutely no connection between what the Qur’an says and what the interpretation suggests…For more on this and other women’s rights that are confirmed by the Qur’an, but misunderstood by Muslim commentators, please refer to my book pages 359-363. .

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Was the language of the Qur’an Arabic?

The Aramaic language of the Qur’an does not suggest that…For more on this subject, please refer to my book, pages 398-399.

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Was the Prophet of Islam “unlettered”?

The Qur’an states the following: ALLADHINA YATBA’UNA AL RASSUL, AL NABIYYU AL “UMMI” ALLADHI YAJIDUNAHU MAKTUBAN ‘INDAHUM FI ALTAURAT WAL INJIL, Q. 7: 158. The Syriac-Aramaic language renders a different interpretation…For more on this, please refer to my book, pages 274-275.

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Did the Prophet of Islam visit Jerusalem?

The Qur’an states the following: SUBHANA ALLADHI ASRA BI’ABDIHI MINA AL MASJIDI AL HARAM IL AL MASJIDI AL AQSA, Q. 17: 2. In Aramaic, the verse means something else…For more on this, please refer to my book, pages 309-310.

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Do Muslim commentators really understand the Qur’an?

There are numerous Qur’anic verses that have been interpreted erroneously. Muslim commentators are not qualified to render correct interpretation to the Book, which was written in the Aramaic language.

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Who is Jesus in the Qur’an?

The Qur’an states the following: Waqaalu ittakhadha allahu waladan subhaanahu, Q. 2: 117. Muslim commentators render the following interpretation to this part of the verse: 1-‘And they say, Allah has taken to Himself a son, Holy is He’ (M. Sher Ali); 2-’they say: ‘God hath begotten a son’: Glory be to him’ (A. Yusuf Ali); 3-’and they say: Allah hath taken unto Himself a Son’ (M. M. Pickthall). The following commentary is written by Abdullah Yusuf Ali: ‘It is a derogation from the glory of God—in fact it is blasphemy—to say that God begets sons, like a man or an animal. The Christian doctrine is here emphatically repudiated. I words have any meaning; it would mean an attribution to God of a material nature, and of the lower animal functions of sex. In a spiritual sense, we are all children of God. And all Creation celebrates His glory. Verse 117 should be read with this to complete the argument’. Ali’s commentary represents a clear example of the distorted interpretation given by Muslim commentators to the Qur’anic verse. The Qur’an does not say that ‘God hath taken unto Himself a son’. It says: “God is united with a son”. The Qur’anic word “ittakhadha” is derived from Syr. “itaw had” meaning ‘he became united in one’. Syr, “had” means ‘one’;“ahdh” one (Exod. 17: 12); “ahd” one (Isa. 27: 12; Eze. 33: 30), etc…For more on this,please refer to my book, pages 166-169.

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Do Muslim commentators know what is the meaning of the Qur’anic term “wajeehan” for Jesus?

The Qur’an states the following: Issa bnu Maryam, wajihan fi aldunya wa al aakhirati wamina al muqarrabin, Q. 3: 46, trans. ‘Jesus son of Mary, honored in this world and in the next, and of those who are granted nearness to God’ (M. Sher Ali). The translator inserted the word ‘he was granted’. He does not want to agree with what the Qur’an is proclaiming. The Qur’anic word “wajihan” has been interpreted erroneously as ‘honored’. Syr. “gho, gha” means ‘deliverer, the one who sets free, cure’, Aram. “ghh” means ‘set free, heal, cure’ (Hos. 5: 13, Pro. 17: 22)…For more on this, please refer to my book, pages 205-206.

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Do Muslim commentators know that the Qur’an mentions the name of God of Israel “Yahweh”, but was interpreted erroneously as “evil desire”?

The Qur’anic word is “Yahweh”, the proper name of God of Israel. Syriac “ahiya, ahiyo” (Syriac Peshito, Exodus 3: 14)…For more on this please refer to my book.

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Do Muslim commentators know that many chapters of the Qur’an are borrowed from the Hebrew Bible, which was written two thousand years before the Qur’an?

The Aramaic language of the Qur’an, leaves no doubt that many chapters of the Qur’an are borrowed from the Hebrew Bible “Biblia Hebraica”. Some of those chapters were given erroneous interpretations by Muslim commentators, because they did not understand the Aramaic language of the Qur’an. The book reveals the meaning of those chapters, which were written in the Hebrew Bible two thousand years before the Qu’an came into existence. For more on this, please refer to my book.

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Do Muslim commentators know what “laylatu al Qadr” means?

The Qur’an states the following: INNA ANZALNAHU FI LAYLATI AL QADR, Q. 97:2. A reference to the time when the Qur’an descended on the Prophet. Muslim commentators render the following interpretations: 1-‘surely, we sent it down on the Night of Destiny’ (M. Sher Ali); 2-‘Lo! we revealed it on the Night of Power’ (M. M. Pickthall); 3-‘we have indeed revealed this Message in the Night of Power’ (Abdullah Yusuf Ali). This commentator writes the following explanations: “Literalists refer to some particular night in the calendar. But there is no agreement as to which it is. The 23rd., 25th night of Ramadan, as well as other nights have been suggested…” (A. Yusuf Ali). There are disagreements among Muslim commentators as to what is the “Night of Power”. The Qur’anic word “laylatu” has been interpreted as ‘night’. Syriac “laylo, layla” night. The Qur’anic word “qadr” has been interpreted erroneously as ‘the night of destiny’, and ‘the night of power’. Aramaic “qdr”…For more on this, please refer to my book, pages 411-413

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Do Muslim commentators know that Alexander the Great was not a God fearing individual? But their misunderstanding of the Aramaic language of the Qur’an, made them believe that he was.

The Qur’an states the following: HATTA IDHA BALAGHA MAGHRIBU AL SHAMS, Q. 18: 87. Translated: ‘until, when he reached the setting of the sun in a pool of murky water’ (M. Sher Ali). Abdullah Yusuf Ali explains the verse as following: “This is the first of the three episodes here mentioned, his expedition to the west, ‘reaching the setting of the sun’, does not mean the extreme west, for there is no such thing. West and East are relative terms. It means a western expedition terminated by ‘a spring of murky water.’ THIS HAS PUZZLED COMMENTATORS,and they have understood this to mean a dark, temestuous sea if Zul-Qarnain is Alexander the Great, the reference is easily understood to be to Lychnitis (now Ochrida), west of Macedonia. It is fed entirely by underground springs in a limestone region, where the water is never very clear” (A. Yusuf Ali’s commentary 2430). The Qur’anic term Zul Qarnain is for Alexander the Great. But his expedition was not toward the West. He directed his military campaign toward the East. But that is not what the Qur’an is saying. Had Muslim commentators knew Syriac, they would not have been puzzled, because the Qur’an is telling the believers something associated with the military campaign. There is no mention to the sun, and there is no need to look for ‘murky water’…For more on this and the rest of the chapter describing Alexander the Great, please refer to my book pages 319-321.

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Do Muslim commentators know that the language of every single verse in the Qur’an is Aramaic?

The book “The Qur’an: Misinterpreted, Minstranslated, and Misread. The Syriac-Aramaic Language of the Qur’an” analyzes 513 Qur’anic verses, taken from 51 chapters.

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